Truth Magazine

By Elmer Moore

I am fully aware of the diversity over what the statement “gift of the Holy Spirit” in Acts 2:38 means: “And Peter said to them, Repent ye, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ unto the remission of sins; and you shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” Much has been said and written about the prepositional phrase, “unto the remission of sins.” If this phrase was not even in the text one would know why they were to be baptized. The Jews asked a question in verse 37 and said, “What shall we do?” They had been indicted as the murderers of the Divine Son of God. They were in a lost condition and wanted to know what to do to be saved. Peter answered their question saying, “Repent and be baptized.” This is what they were to do in order to have their sins forgiven. The honest and good heart would know this even if the prepositional phrase “unto remission of sins” had not been uttered. I can only ask that you consider this presentation with an open and honest heart.

However, our study will have to do with the statement, ” … and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” What were they promised? Were they promised the Holy Spirit himself or were they promised a gift from the Holy Spirit? Was the Spirit himself the gift or was he the giver? We will endeavor to answer this question.

Cannot be Answered on the Basis

of the Grammar Alone

Brother Franklin Puckett wrote that, “Grammatically it may be either the Holy Spirit Himself, or it may be that which the Holy Spirit gives. The grammar does not determine whether the Holy Spirit is the gift or the give?’ (The Holy Spirit 12-13). On pages 13 and 14 he cites Greek authorities and shows that they conclude “that the distinction between the Subjective and the Objective Genitive depends, not on grammatical, but upon doctrinal reasons, and that these are to be carefully deduced from an accurate comparison of parallel passages” (Winer Grammar of the New Testament Diction, Part III, Sec. 30, 199). I am not willing to allow denominational scholars to determine doctrine for me. Are you? Let us determine the meaning, from the New Testament, by looking at some parallel passages.

Comparison of “Gift of ” Passages

In John 4:10 Jesus said, “If thou knewest the gift of God .. thou would have asked of him, and he would have given thee living water.” In Ephesians 4:7 Paul wrote, “Unto each … was the grace given according to the measure of the gift of Christ.” In Acts 2:38 Peter said, “Ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Spirit.” In each of the above passages you have what God, Christ and the Holy Spirit would give. God was not the gift but the giver; Christ was not the gift but the giver; and likewise, the Holy Spirit was not the gift but the giver. A gift implies a giver. One cannot have a gift without a giver and a receiver. If the Holy Spirit is the gift, then who is the giver? The concept that the Holy Spirit is the gift and not the giver actually makes the gift and the giver one and the same. But how can that be? The gift of God was not God but living water that he would give. The gift of Christ was not Christ, but the gifts named in the text. Likewise, the gift of the Holy Spirit was not the Holy Spirit himself, but the salvation promised in Acts 2:21. I am not aware of any other circumstance where men would argue as they do about the gift and giver of Acts 2:38. If one reads about the gift of the Ford Foundation he would not think that the Ford Foundation was the gift, but that it was the giver.

Gift of the Holy Spirit in the Immediate Context

The text of Peter’s sermon was this: “And it shall be, that whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved” (Acts 2:21; Joel 2:32). In this sermon he identified the Lord they were to call on, he explained the reason they should call on him, and he explained how they were to do it. The emphasis in this passage is on the whosoever which is comparable to “all nations” in similar passages. Paul wrote there was no distinction between Jew and Greek and that Jesus is “Lord of all, and is rich unto all that call on him: for, whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved” (Rom.10:12-13). Thus, he indicates that Joel was showing that both Jew and Gentile would have the right to invoke God’s blessings by doing his will. Notice what Peter says, “For to you is the promise, and to your children, and to all that are afar off, even as many as the Lord our God shall call” (Acts 2:39). What promise is Peter talking about? I submit that he is talking about the promise in Acts 2:21 which involved “whosoever”; i.e., both Jew and Gentile (see Rom. 10:12-13). Who are the recipients of the promise of Acts 2:39? It says the promise is to you (Jews) and to your children (Jews) and to all that are afar off (Gentiles), (see Eph. 2:13). In Acts 2:21, salvation is promised to both Jews and Gentiles. After Peter stated that the baptized would receive the gift of the Holy Spirit, he stated the reason in verse 39 when he said, “For to you is the promise,” referring to the salvation of verse 21. This is not being redundant because salvation is sometimes used to indicate a state or condition resulting from the remission of sins (see Luke 1:77).

The salvation of Joel 2:32 is the equivalent of the promised inheritance through Abraham (see Gal. 3:7-14). In Galatians 3:15 this inheritance is said to be the “promise of the Spirit” or that which the Holy Spirit promised through Abraham.

Look at the Immediate Context, Acts 2:33

Peter declares that Jesus was exalted to the right hand of God and received the promise of the Holy Spirit. He did not receive the Holy Spirit himself but he received that which the Holy Spirit promised. The promise was that he would sit on David’s throne (Acts 2:34-35). This statement was made just five verses before Acts 2:38. The promise of the Spirit is what the Holy Spirit promised and the gift of the Holy Spirit is what the Holy Spirit gave.

Now Look at the Remote Context, Acts 26:16-18

Jesus said to Paul, “. . . to this end have I appeared unto thee, to appoint thee a minister and a witness both of the things wherein thou hast seen me, and of the things wherein I will appear unto thee; delivering thee from the people, and from the Gentiles unto whom I send thee, to open their eyes, that they may turn from darkness to light and from the power of Satan unto God, that they may receive the remission of sins and an inheritance among them that are sanctified by faith in me” (Acts 26:16-18). This is a commentary on the gift of the Holy Spirit. Paul was not directed to teach some-thing different from what Peter preached. The promised inheritance that resulted from their receiving the remission of sins was the gift of the Holy Spirit.

How Can This Salvation be the

Gift of the Holy Spirit?

Peter wrote to the elect of God and said they had been “begotten again unto a living hope by the resurrection of Jesus Christ from the dead, unto an inheritance incorruptible, and undefiled and fadeth not away reserved in heaven for you, who by the power of God are guarded through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time” (1 Pet. 1:3-5). These brethren were called “children of obedience” (v. 14). They had been redeemed by the precious blood of Jesus (v. 18), having purified their souls by obeying the truth (v. 21). They had been begotten again by the word of God that liveth and abideth forever (v. 21). This is a description of the gift of the Holy Spirit. Begotten again by the word of God. Obedient children have a living hope based on a living Savior, are promised an inheritance that would not fade away, and are guarded through faith unto a salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.

Peter declares, “Concerning which salvation the prophets sought and searched diligently, who prophesied of the grace that should come unto you: searching what time and manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did point unto, when it testified the suffering of Christ and the glories that should follow them. To whom it was revealed, that not unto themselves, but unto you, did they minister these things, which now have been announced unto you through them that preached the gospel unto you by the Holy Spirit sent forth from heaven; which things angels desire to look into” (1 Pet. 1:10-12).

Please consider that the Holy Spirit enabled men to prophesy concerning this salvation (2 Pet. 1:20-21). The Holy Spirit enabled men to preach this message of salvation (1 Pet. 1:12). The Holy Spirit validated the message of this great salvation by signs and wonders (Heb. 2:1-4). This is why the salvation of Acts 2:21 can be and indeed is the gift of the Holy Spirit (Acts 2:38).

Salvation was prophesied by the Holy Spirit. Salvation was announced by those who preached the gospel by the Holy Spirit. Their message of salvation was validated by the Holy Spirit. The promise of the gift of the Holy Spirit in Acts 2:38 was not only to those present but for all who would truly repent and be baptized. Everyone who complies with the conditions of Acts 2:38 receives the gift of the Holy Spirit and that gift is salvation. Those in Acts 8:16 by being baptized into the name of the Lord Jesus, complied with the conditions of Acts 2:38 and received the gift of the Holy Spirit. However, they had not received the Holy Spirit himself (Acts 8:17). I believe that this shows that to receive the gift of the Holy Spirit is not necessarily to receive the Holy Spirit himself, but is that which the Holy Spirit gives.

Guardian of Truth XL: 3 p. 18-19
February1, 1996

By Daniel R. Vess

The conversion of Cornelius and his household is a great mile marker in the progress of the gospel. In Acts 10 we not only find the first Gentile converts, but the visible signs of the middle wall of partition separating Jews from Gentiles coming down (Eph. 2:140. The portals to the kingdom were opened to the whole Gentile world. Compared to Acts 2, this chapter exemplifies the “Gentile Pentecost.”

This glorious event is not without controversy. A total of five times the household is said to have received some kind of manifestation of the Holy Spirit. Many have referred to this as the baptism of the Holy Spirit. Others have seriously questioned this conclusion, such as, Foy E. Wallace, Jr. in his book, The Mission and Medium of the Holy Spirit.

First, consideration will be given to the various lines of argumentation against Holy Spirit baptism in Acts 10. Next, evidence will be put forth to affirm that Cornelius’ house-hold experienced Holy Spirit baptism.

Arguments Against

1. The gift of the Holy Spirit poured out upon Cornelius’ house was not for the same purpose as the apostles’ Holy Spirit baptism. In the case of the apostles it was to enable them to reveal and testify the truth of God (John 16:13; Acts 1:8). The outpouring of the Holy Spirit in Acts 10 was indeed for an entirely different purpose. However, a difference in purpose does not prove the Gentiles did not experience Holy Spirit baptism.

Although Peter preached the universality of the gospel (Acts 2:39), it was not until his vision and the sudden speaking in tongues by Cornelius’ household that he realized that neither he nor the six Jews present could forbid the Gentiles water baptism. In defense of taking the gospel to the Gen-tiles, Peter told the Jews in Jerusalem that if he had refused to accept the Gentiles he would have been withstanding the will of God. Peter’s words convinced those at Jerusalem that “God has also granted to the Gentiles repentance to life” (11:17, 18). Again, Peter stood before those in Jerusalem declaring that God chose him to preach to the first Gentile converts to purify “their hearts by faith” saving them “in the same manner as” the Jews (15:9, 11). Furthermore, to refuse the Gentiles equal access via the Gospel would be to provoke God (15:10). Three times Peter used the manifestation of the Holy Spirit upon these Gentiles to prove God “acknowledged” (15:8) the Gentiles could become Christians without keeping the Law of Moses. Thus, this divine demonstration of Holy Spirit baptism of the Gentiles was to convince the Jewish brethren and fulfill what had always been a part of God’s eternal purpose (Gen. 22:18; Isa. 2:2, 3; Mark 16:16; Acts 2:39).

2. The Holy Spirit did not bestow the same power upon Cornelius’ household as it did upon the apostles. This distinction is also based upon assumptions. Does the same degree of power demand the same abilities? Were the first century Christians who received the gift of interpretation of tongues less blessed by the power of the Spirit than the one who received the gift to speak in tongues? It is further assumed that the baptism of the Holy Spirit is what enabled the apostles to impart gifts via laying on of hands (Acts 8:14-19; 19:1-7; 2 Tm. 1:6). Yet, where is the passage(s) that demands such a conclusion? The apostles were commissioned to do a specific work. Therefore, they were given various abilities that the first Gentile converts did not need (John 14-16). What took place in Cornelius’ home did not remind Peter of the promised power to the apostles (Acts 1:8), but the baptism of the Holy Spirit (1:5). The purpose of these Holy Spirit baptisms was for distinct reasons, thus the manifestation and extent of this outpouring could also be distinctive.

3. Holy Spirit baptism was never promised to Gentiles, but only to the apostles. Frequently, prophecies are also divine promises. The prophecy of Joel 2 was quoted by Peter in Acts 2 in order to explain the manifestation of the Holy Spirit upon the day of Pentecost. If it took the baptism of the Holy Spirit to fulfill the promise to the Jews in Joel, then would it not follow that the same was required to fulfill this promise in relationship to the Gentiles? True, other promises were made in relationship to the apostles’ baptism of the Holy Spirit, yet it was certainly promised to the Gentiles.

4. In the case of Cornelius it is never referred to as baptism, but merely as a gift. If this manifestation of the Holy Spirit’s power in Cornelius and those accompanying him was not Holy Spirit baptism, then was it the “gift of the Holy Spirit” promised by Peter in Acts 2:38? No! The gift mentioned there was predicated upon the recipients’ obedience to the gospel. They had to repent and be baptized in order to receive this gift. At Cornelius’ house the gift came prior to their baptism in water. Furthermore, what they received could not have been one of the “gifts” of the Holy Spirit. In Bulwarks of Faith, even Foy Wallace Jr. explained: “Holy Spirit baptism was from God, not from man; it was received directly from heaven  not by importation of hands” (191). Again, if “gift” merely refers to the ability to speak in tongues, then where did this ability come from? All others who had this ability were those who received it by the laying on of the apostles hands. Also, why did Peter make reference to the apostles “gift” and the “beginning”? Was this the only other case of speaking in tongues up to that time? The only logical explanation can be found in the mind of Peter as he paralleled what he saw in Acts 10 to the words of Jesus in Acts 1:5: “John indeed baptized with water, but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit” (11:16).

5. What happened in Cornelius’ house is not identical to that of the Pentecostal experience. Certainly, these two cases are not identical, but they are similar. No two cases of conversion are identical in every detail. For example, an angel appeared to Cornelius, but not to the Philippian jailor or the eunuch. If all cases of conversion must be the same in every peculiarity, then the baptism experienced by the household of the Philippian jailor is not the same water baptism as that of Cornelius’ household. Reasoning like this proves too much.

Evidence For

1. What happened with Cornelius’ household is similar to the apostles’ reception of the Holy Spirit. The language consistently points to the Jews in general and the apostles specifically as parallel recipients of this type of Holy Spirit manifestation: “the gift of the Holy Spirit had been poured out on the Gentiles also” (10:45); “received the Holy Spirit just as we have?” (10:47); “the Holy Spirit fell upon them, as upon us at the beginning” (11:15); “God gave them the same gift” (11:17); and “giving them the Holy Spirit, just as He did to us” (15:8).

2. Only Pentecost could be referenced as a parallel to what happened in Cornelius’ house (11:15). When refer-ring to the Holy Spirit falling upon them, Peter went back to the “beginning” as a analogous incident. In the years following Pentecost there wasn’t a single manifestation of the Holy Spirit comparable to what he saw at Cornelius’ house. Exactly what Peter meant by going back to Pentecost is made clear in verse 16 when he remembered Jesus’ words concerning the baptism of the Holy Spirit.

3. Peter mentioned Jesus’ promise of the Holy Spirit baptism in explaining what had happened in Cornelius’ house (11:16). The first promise of a baptism with the Holy Spirit was made by John the Immerser (Matt 3:11). Later, this promise was recounted by Jesus a few days before his ascension (Acts 1:5; Luke 24:44-49). Inspiration ties both the apostles and Cornelius to the promise Christ made in Acts 1:5.

4. The power of the Holy Spirit was administered directly from heaven (11:17; 15:8). The gifts of the Holy Spirit were not conferred by the normal means, that is, the laying on of the apostles’ hands, but straight from heaven. This is compatible with the scriptural teaching that only Christ would administer the baptism of the Holy Spirit. John the Baptist could not administer it (Matt. 3:11) nor any of the apostles, but only Christ was to administer it (Acts 1:5).

5. It was the “same gift” as that of the apostles at the beginning (11:17). The corresponding word for “same” is translated in Philippians 2:6 as “equal,” that is, Christ “did not consider it robbery to be equal with God.” This “same” gift is mentioned as “the gift of the Holy Spirit” that was poured out on them (10:45). Thus, whatever the outpouring of the gift of the Holy Spirit was in relation to the apostles on Pentecost is the same thing or equal to the outpouring years later at Caesarea.

6. It demonstrated “no distinction” between Jews and Gentiles (15:9). How did Peter know that no distinction existed between Jew and Gentile? Because they were given the same gift from God. If they really didn’t receive the same outpouring of the gift of the Holy Spirit then Peter’s argument is unsupported.

7. The event fulfilled the prophecy of Joel 2:28-32. Ac-cording to Joel’s prophecy all flesh would receive the outpouring of the Spirit. Surely, all flesh does not include animal flesh or those who are wicked, but those willing to call upon the name of the Lord to be saved (Acts 2:21; 10:43). Jew and Gentile represent all flesh. Thus, the Holy Spirit was poured out upon the apostles representing Jewish flesh upon the day of Pentecost and then upon the household of Cornelius representing Gentile flesh (10:45).

Furthermore, when the Apostles spoke in tongues having been filled with the Holy Spirit, it represented Holy Spirit baptism promised by Jesus (1:5) and it also fulfilled the prophecy of Joel (2:17). Now, if it took the Holy Spirit baptism to fulfill Joel’s prophecy and the promise of Jesus in reference to the Jews, then it would require Holy Spirit baptism for the Gentiles. After all, Cornelius’ household was filled with the Holy Spirit, speaking in tongues, the Spirit poured out upon them as on the Jews at the beginning, and reminded the inspired apostle Peter of Jesus promise to baptize with the Holy Spirit (11:16). Finally, if Cornelius’ household did not receive Holy Spirit baptism in fulfillment of Joel’s prophecy, then where is this prophecy fulfilled?

Every reference to the experience of Cornelius’ house-hold points back to Pentecost (Acts 10:44, 45, 47; 11:15, 16; 15:8). Both Joel 2 and Acts 2 point toward the conversion of Cornelius’ household in Acts 10 for fulfillment. This scriptural proof is convincing and conclusive.

Guardian of Truth XL: 3 p. 
February1, 1996

By Stephen Reeves

Paul begins the book of Romans proclaiming that he is an “apostle, separated unto the gospel of God, which he promised afore through his prophets in the holy scriptures.” This gospel was the “power of God unto salvation to every one that believeth.” But who needs to be saved? Who is lost? Paul argues from 1:18-3:19 that both Jew and Gentile are without excuse for their sin and the whole world is brought under judgment of God. How then can one be saved or justified before God? One has to be justified or made righteous or else he faces the wrath of God (1:18). Starting from 3:20, we begin to look at Paul’s discussion of the basis of man’s justification.

Could one be justified by the law? Paul says no, “Because by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified in his sight” (v. 20a). Why is this the case? “For through the law cometh the knowledge of sin” (20b). The law could only make man aware of sin, defining it and stating its consequences. This was established in 3:9-10. All were guilty and any system of keeping the law perfectly could not justify the sinner. It could only justify the one who has kept it perfectly (2:13). It has been noted that the definite article “the” (e.g., the law) is not in the Greek text of this verse. Thus, while the context is referring to the law of Moses, it applies to any law t. system that doesn’t provide the redemption that is in Christ. The law required two basic things: (1) that you keep all of it (Gal. 3:10, 12), and (2) if you transgressed it, you had to pay the penalty which was death (Rom. 6:23). After you had sinned, there was no amount of law keeping that would atone for the sin! Since both Jew and Gentile were lawbreakers (2:12-15), they were helpless to justify themselves before God on the basis of their life. The sinner cannot redeem himself or atone for his own sins!

“But now apart from the law a righteousness of God hath been revealed” (21a). The phrase “apart from” (“without” KJV) means “not on the basis of.” The righteousness of God (the means of making one righteous which comes from God) is not based on a law or system of justification derived from perfect obedience. It is error to make a play on the word “without” and say that this righteousness of God is without (doesn’t contain any) law that needs to be obeyed. At this point Paul is discussing the basis of justifying the sinner; not by perfect law keeping, but by faith in Jesus Christ. The very nature of this faith requires obedience (1:5; 16:26, “obedience of faith”). This means of justification was foretold (witnessed) “by the law and the prophets” (cf. 1:2-3). The Old Testament pointed to Christ and he was its end purpose or goal (10:4).

“The righteousness of God” is “through faith in Jesus Christ unto all them that believe; for there is no distinction” (v. 22). “Through faith” indicates the means through which this righteousness is given to the sinner. He must have faith in Jesus. The KJV translates here the “faith of Jesus.” One might derive from that the idea of a “personal faith” of Jesus. But the Greek is the same as in Mark 11:22 where it speaks of “faith in God.” This is not God’s “faith” or “believing” any more than verse 22 speaking of Jesus’ “faith.” Both passages are addressing the need to believe in God and in Jesus. This means of justification would be the same for the Jew and the Gentile alike. The reason for this is given in the following verse. “For all have sinned, and fall short of the glory of God” (23). Paul did not say that all have to sin. This is not a proof text for the false doctrine of total depravity or original sin. If this doctrine were true, Paul spent much needless effort in the first two and a half chapters arguing for the case that “all are under sin”! The “all” of verse 23 are all who are accountable to God’s law. These are they who are able to perceive “through the things that are made” (1:20) God’s power and divinity. They are able to know that it is wrong to “steal,” “commit adultery,” and “transgress the law” (2:21-23).

Now all those under the gospel are “being freely justified by his grace” (24). This justification is free because it cannot be merited or earned. It is of grace (a gift) because God is not in debt to the sinner. It is through (Greek: dia, by the means of) “the redemption that is in Christ Jesus” (24b). This justification will come then by means of a buying back (redemption) or paying the price (death) for sin. This redemption is in Christ Jesus because it was he “who God set forth to be a propitiation, through faith, in his blood” (25a). Only the blood (death) of Jesus could atone for man’s sin (Heb. 10:4-14). Remember that under a law system of justification one had to keep the law perfectly to be justified or there would be death to pay. Since all had sinned, that left only death as a means to satisfy the law. Christ died to make that payment for sin. Not for any of his own, for he never sinned (Heb. 4:15), but for those of the world (1 John 2:2). However, this propitiation for sins is not unconditional for Paul says that one receives it “through faith.”

Paul states that this justification, which is based on the sacrificial death of Christ, is manifested to show God’s “righteousness because of the passing over of the sins done aforetime, in the forbearance of God” (25b). This was also done to show God’s “righteousness at this present season: that he might himself be just, and the justifier of him that hath faith in Jesus” (26). Here we see the satisfaction of two characteristics of God. God is merciful and doesn’t want any to perish (2 Pet. 3:9; Rom. 2:4, 7). However, God is just, and can’t overlook sin. He can’t demand that his will be observed and then ignore the violations of that will and the consequences which he has placed on sin.

How then can God “pass over” and forgive the sins of the faithful who lived before the revelation of the gospel? On the basis of law? No, because men like Abraham, Moses, and David sinned and couldn’t be justified by law (v. 20). Yet, through repentance and faithfulness to God they were forgiven (4:1-10). God forgave these sins on the basis of the sacrificial death of his Son. He could justly (properly, in accordance to his character) justify them because it was his purpose to redeem these sins in Christ Jesus (1 Pet. 1:18-20). The writer of Hebrews also states that Jesus’ death took place “for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first covenant” (Heb. 9:15). This forgiveness, however, was not unconditional. It was required of those before the gospel dispensation to be faithfully obedient to God. Note in Hebrews 11 that by faith Abel “offered,” Enoch was “well pleasing,” Noah “prepared an ark,” Abraham “obeyed” and “offered,” Moses “endured” and “kept the passover,” and many others were obedient by faith. Their obedience of faith did not merit forgiveness, rather it was the condition of their being forgiven. Christ’s death paid the penalty for Noah’s sins, but Noah “became heir of the righteousness” by faithfully doing the will of God (Heb. 11:7). Having addressed those who lived prior to the gospel dispensation, Paul now turns to “this present season.” Today God is “just and the justifier of him that hath faith in Jesus.”

“Where then is the glorying? It is excluded” (27a). There can be no glorying or boasting on man’s part because all have sinned and fallen short of the glory of God! If they are to be justified, it will be on the basis of grace (redemption through Christ’s blood) and not on human merit. “By what manner of law?” (27b). Here Paul is asking by what means, system, rule, or principle (law) is glorying ruled out. Is it by a “law of works? Nay: but by a law of faith” (27c). The “law of works” here is a system of justification based on perfect observance of the law. If one had kept the law perfectly, then he could “glory” but not toward God (Rom. 4:2-4). This system of justification would not exclude boasting, it would include it. But all have sinned, so that leaves only the “law of faith” by which one can be justified. This “law of faith” is the system of justification based on faith in Jesus Christ and his blood (atonement for our sins). If one can only be saved on the merits of Christ’s sacrifice, then he has no room to boast.

Paul then concludes with what he had introduced in v. 21. “We reckon therefore that a man is justified by faith apart from the works of the law” (28). Paul is contrasting these two systems of justification. The justification which is by faith is separate and apart (“without,” KJV) from that which comes by perfect keeping of the law (whether the law of Moses or any law). Since none can be justified by the latter, then it can only come “by faith.” It is error to read into this text “faith only.” Paul is not contrasting faith only with obedience of faith (1:5)! He is not contrasting faith only with gospel works (Eph. 2:10). He is not saying that this faith contains no law or rules that need to be obeyed. This would contradict his earlier statement in 2:7-11. There Paul states that God will punish those who “obey not the truth” and will reward “every man that worketh good.” The reward will not be based on human merit, but on God’s grace.

In verses 29-30 Paul adds another argument for justification by faith in Jesus separate from justification by “works of the law.” He states, “Or is God the God of the Jews only: is he not the God of Gentiles also? Yea, of Gen-tiles also: if so be that God is one, and he shall justify the circumcision by faith, and the uncircumcision through faith” (29-30). Again, while the definite article “the” (i.e. the law) in the Greek is omitted, in context Paul is speaking of the law of Moses. If the Jewish sinner could find justification in the law (which was given to the Jew and not the Gentile), then God would be a God of the Jew only. However, since all have sinned, the God of all has chosen to save all through faith in Jesus Christ.

“Do we then make the law of none effect through faith? God forbid: nay, we establish the law” (31). The definite article is again missing in the Greek before the word “law.” If Paul is speaking of “the law” of Moses, in what sense does he “establish” it? It can’t be for justification. Such would contradict all that is said. If he was speaking of the law of Moses, he has established its purpose in showing the need to be justified by faith in Christ (Gal. 3:19-25). However, it seems more in keeping with the context to consider the verse without the article: “Do we then make law of none effect through faith?” That is, will this “faith in Jesus” negate the need for law (rules of right and wrong)? No, he says, we establish the need for law. The gospel contains law, rules, things we “must” do. But in the gospel, law has its proper place. It is kept as a condition of saving faith (Jas. 2:14, 17, 21-24).

Conclusion

Having exegeted this text, consider with me some observations concerning grace and law, faith and works. Much error is being taught concerning these biblical topics, and passages such as this are perverted to uphold false doctrine. Those who follow Calvinistic or “faith only” doctrine pit “grace” against “law” and “faith” against “works.” But God’s grace has law for, “the grace of God hath appeared, bringing salvation to all men, instructing us . . .” (Tit. 2:11, 12). Thus God’s grace has instructions, requirements, law, and things we must do. In 1 Corinthians 9:21 Paul said he was under “law to Christ.” The Hebrew writer states that Jesus became the “author of eternal salvation” to “all them that obey him” (Heb. 5:9). James says that we are to “fulfill the royal law” and that we will be “judged by a law of liberty” (James 2:8, 12). Jesus said, “Not everyone that sayeth unto me, Lord, Lord, shall enter into the kingdom of heaven; but he that doeth the will of my Father who is in heaven” (Matt. 7:21). To this James adds that a saving faith in Jesus Christ requires that we do the “works” which God has given us to do. Read chapters one and two of that book. He states that, “faith, if it have not works, is dead in itself ” (2:17). Abraham obeyed (“wrought his works,” ASV) by faith and “by works was faith made perfect” (2:22).

The problem the “faith only” and “grace only” advocates have is that they confuse the basis of salvation with conditionality. Justification today is based on “grace through faith” in Christ Jesus (Eph. 2:8, 9). The condition which God has placed on that “faith” is obedience to his Son. But, one may object and say that this allows for boasting! Not true! Jesus said, “when ye shall have done all the things that are commanded you, say, We are unprofitable servants; we have done that which it was our duty to do” (Luke 17:10). Jesus is saying that we must do all that is commanded, but in doing that we have not merited salvation from our sins. Salvation can only come through the redemption found in Christ Jesus, through faith in his blood. May the love of God constrain us to walk by faith, seeking to do all that he bids us, and to give him thanks for his grace and mercy in sending his Son to die for our sins.

Guardian of Truth XL: 4 p. 2
February 15, 1996

By Rickie Jenkins

Isn’t it interesting that we are asking this question to-day? For just as today, this question was very much on the minds of people in the days of Paul (Acts 18:18; 21:18-28; 1 Cor. 9:20-21). It is important for us to recognize that Paul had a high regard for the law. He tells us that the “law is holy, and the commandments holy and just and good” (Rom. 7:12). He described himself as a strict observer of the law, “a Hebrew of the Hebrews; concerning the law, a Pharisee.” There was no one who tried harder to be justified by the law than Paul. He understood the purpose of the law (Gal. 3:24-25) and was devout concerning the law before he was a Christian as well as after he became a Christian. Oh yes, certainly he teaches, in Romans and Galatians, no man is justified by perfect law keeping but by the grace of God through an obedient faith. But, isn’t that obedient faith an expression of reverence for the law of God? Paul did not set aside the law, whether of Moses or of Christ, for mere convenience sake. If he de-scribed himself as “a Hebrew among Hebrews” before he became a Christian, then today he would be a “Christian among Christians.” We want to look at our question in three ways: first, did Paul teach the Jews not to circumcise their children?; second, did Paul violate his own teaching when he helped the four men pay their charges?; and third, did Paul violate his own teaching when he kept his vow at Cenchrea?

Paul had a devout respect for his heritage as a Jew. In fact, when customary things related to being a Jew could be performed, he did them. Paul’s problems came because people believed false rumors about him. Paul had been represented as teaching “the Jews among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children nor to walk according to the customs” (Acts 21:21). Although Paul had not taught these things, many of the zealous Jews were distressed, thinking that he had. This misrepresentation seems to have grown out of the events of Acts 15 where Paul taught that Gentiles did not have to be circumcised in order to be saved. This teaching infuriated many among the Jews. Yes, Paul taught the Gentiles that it was not necessary for them to circumcise their children as a necessity for salvation. He never taught that Jews could not circumcise their children out of respect for their heritage. In fact, Paul circumcised the half-Jew Timothy because of the Jews in order that he might win some (Acts 16:3; 1 Cor. 9:20-21). He refused to circumcise Titus, not because he was against circumcision as such, but because the Judaizers were trying to bind circumcision upon him and others as necessary for salvation. Therefore, in order to teach the Judaizers that circumcision was not necessary for salvation, Paul did not give in to them for one minute (Gal. 2:3-5).

Furthermore, in order to avoid a tumultuous assemblage and to quiet the rumors being spread about him, Paul was advised by James and the elders to take four men who had taken a vow and pay their vow for them and be purified with them (Acts 21:23-24). These men were evidently under a Nazarite vow (Num. 6). Under such a vow they would let their hair grow, not eat anything from the grape moist or dried; they were not to come near any dead body nor to make themselves unclean for their father, mother, brother, or sister when they died (Num. 6:3-7). They were to present an offering when the days of the vow were completed (Num. 6:13-21). Nowhere is it intimated that Paul took a vow; it is assumed perhaps from Acts 18:18.

According to Vincent, “The person who paid the expenses for the poor devotees who could not afford the necessary charges shared the vow so far as that he was required to stay with the Nazarites until the time the vow had expired. For a week, then, Paul, if he accepted the advice of James and the elders, would have to live with the four paupers in the chamber of the temple which was set apart for this purpose; and then to pay for the sixteen sacrificial animals and the accompanying meat offerings. He must also stand among the Nazarites during the offering of the sacrifices, and look on while their heads were shaved, and while they took their hair to burn it under the cauldron of the peace offerings, and while the priest took four sodden shoulders of rams, and four unleavened cakes out of the four baskets, and four unleavened wafers anointed with oil, and put them on the hands of the Nazarites and wave them for a wave offering before the Lord.” Paying the expenses for terminating the vow of these four certainly did not equate that Paul was also taking the vow. By accepting James and the elders proposal, Paul is simply becoming a Jew to the Jew that he might win some (1 Cor. 9:20-21). For the sake of others he acted. After all, that was what he was encouraged to do, “that all may know that those things of which they were informed concerning you are nothing” (Acts 21: 24).

The letter of Acts 15 still stands. The request being made of Paul does not conflict with the principle nor, in fact, with the teaching concerning the Gentiles. He did not become inconsistent, or compromise his teaching, rather he showed himself a respecter of the old law. Suppose we were to go to a foreign country like Japan. While there, we observe that one of their customs was taking off their shoes before we enter the house. We determine that to be a good practice. So, we begin to take off our shoes before we enter our houses. But, someone comes along and tells us we have to take off our shoes before entering the house or we will be lost. Now what? Taking off our shoes is no longer a matter of custom but a matter of salvation. Can we keep the custom? Yes. Can we make the custom regarding salvation? No.

Now let us briefly look at Acts 18:18 where Paul “cut his hair off in Cenchrea, for he had taken a vow.” A vow was a solemn promise made to God. Vows were used prominently throughout the Scriptures. “Jacob, going into Mesopotamia, vowed a tenth of his estate, and promised to offer it at Bethel to the honor of God (Gen. 28:22). A man might devote himself or his children to the Lord. He might devote any part of his time or property to his service” (Barnes). The most remarkable vow among the Jews was that of the Nazarite. The vow of Paul mentioned in Acts 18 is like a Nazarite vow in that he did shave his head; the vow is different because he did not shave his hair in Jerusalem nor burn it on the alter as Numbers 6:13-18. Vows were also common for Jews to make to God as an expression of gratitude or of devotedness to his service when they had been raised up from sickness or delivered from danger or calamity. No doubt Paul was thankful for all of God’s goodness to him in Corinth and took his vow to show his gratitude. His vow seems to have been a private vow as a result of some mercy received or of some deliverance from danger, not the Nazarite vow, though similar in its obligation.

In spite of Paul’s efforts to become all things to all men in order to win some, there were some who were not satisfied by his attempts. After paying the vow for the four men he was accused of defiling the temple by taking a Gentile into the temple with him (Acts 21:28-29). Isn’t that a stretch? Just because Paul had been seen with Trophimus his de-tractors assumed Paul had taken him in the temple with him. First, the Jews jumped to the conclusion about what he taught because of what they heard about him, and then his detractors judged Paul guilty by association. From the Jews we learn we must be very slow to draw conclusions about what another teaches based on what we have heard. Also, we learn the need to be very careful about judging a person because of his associations. The Jews teach us how not to treat one another. From Paul we also learn how to get along with people and their customs. Paul bent over backward to accommodate the peculiar idiosyncrasies and prejudices of his detractor(s) as well as the rumors about what he taught regarding the law. Let us do likewise. Unfortunately we have all experienced situations like this and, sadly, have been guilty of the same thing as these Jews. We all need to be like Paul (1 Cor. 9:20-21), and we all need to rid ourselves of attitudes like the Jews in Acts 21:18-28.

Guardian of Truth XL: 3 p. 16-17
February1, 1996